How long does an owner have to pay a contractor in Texas?

Thirty-five days after receiving the payment request. The period is set by chapter 28 of the Property Code and it runs whatever the contract says about longer terms.

How long does a contractor have to pay a subcontractor in Texas?

Seven days after they receive the payment. Counted from the payment request going in, that puts a subcontractor at 42 days, which is the number nobody publishes.

Does a pay-when-paid clause override the Texas prompt payment act?

The statutory period runs from receipt of payment upstream, which is why the pass-through is counted from the day the money arrived rather than from the contract. The date on this page is the statutory one.

What happens after the deadline passes?

The unpaid balance is overdue under the statute, which is the point at which asking becomes chasing, and chasing is backed by something. The lien clocks are a separate and much later set of dates.

We use cookies to keep you signed in and to see what's working and what breaks. No advertising cookies, nothing sold. Details in our Cookie Policy.

Texas, United States

When was your money legally due?

Not when the contract says. Chapter 28 gives the owner a fixed period and the contractor above you a short one after that, and the total is the date you can point at.

Where are you in the chain?

Sub or supplierContracted with the owner

You contracted with a contractor, not the owner. Your money moves through them, so your date is the owner period plus the pass-through.

Day the payment request reached the owner

The pay application or invoice going up the chain. Everything counts from here.

Day the contractor above you was paid

Optional. If you know it, the pass-through counts from that day instead, and it usually lands earlier.

Enter the day the payment request went in

The owner has 35 days. The contractor above you has 7 more after that. Nothing is dated until you give the page the day it all started from.

This runs before the lien clock

Prompt payment is when the money was due. The lien affidavit is what you do when it never came. Somebody who only knows the second date spends two months feeling unreasonable for asking.

The date is the whole argument

A chase that names the statute and the day is a different conversation from one that asks whether there is any news on the payment. Same money, same relationship, one of them gets answered.

Worked example

A pay application that went in three weeks ago, counted

The payment request reached the owner on 2026-08-01, and you are a sub below the contractor, so your money runs the owner period plus the pass-through.

The owner has to pay the contractor by
In 15 days
Sep 5, 2026
This is the day the money was legally due, not the day it is polite to ask. Past it, the unpaid balance is overdue under chapter 28 whatever the contract says about net 60.
Counted as 35 days from the payment request (2026-08-01).
Tex. Prop. Code s.28.002(a)
Your money is due by
In 22 days
Sep 12, 2026
Counted the whole way down: the owner pays the contractor, and the contractor then has the pass-through period to pay you. Nobody publishes this total, and it is the only date a subcontractor actually needs.
Counted as 35 days to the contractor, then 7 days down to you, from the payment request (2026-08-01).
Tex. Prop. Code s.28.002(a) and s.28.002(b)

Open this example and change the numbers

Questions this page answers

How long does an owner have to pay a contractor in Texas?: Thirty-five days after receiving the payment request. The period is set by chapter 28 of the Property Code and it runs whatever the contract says about longer terms.
How long does a contractor have to pay a subcontractor in Texas?: Seven days after they receive the payment. Counted from the payment request going in, that puts a subcontractor at 42 days, which is the number nobody publishes.
Does a pay-when-paid clause override the Texas prompt payment act?: The statutory period runs from receipt of payment upstream, which is why the pass-through is counted from the day the money arrived rather than from the contract. The date on this page is the statutory one.
What happens after the deadline passes?: The unpaid balance is overdue under the statute, which is the point at which asking becomes chasing, and chasing is backed by something. The lien clocks are a separate and much later set of dates.

Or have the date attached to the invoice from the day you send it

Send the invoice from the platform and the statutory dates land on it: when the money is due, when it went past due, and what the next step is. You stop working out which invoice is late by scrolling a bank feed.

The chase then goes out on the day it is due rather than the week you remembered, and the record of when you asked is already written.

Open the demo business Read the Texas payment guide

Where these figures come from

prompt_payment_owner_days (US-TX) Published source Last read from the source Aug 12, 2026.
prompt_payment_passthrough_days (US-TX) Published source Last read from the source Aug 12, 2026.

Other free tools

All free tools All guides